tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7631241.post4065880717538870638..comments2011-03-17T07:39:24.324ZUKIPWatchernoreply@blogger.comBlogger2125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7631241.post-25559816922506680002008-08-15T23:09:00.000+01:002008-08-15T23:09:00.000+01:00I'm not sure what the exact wording of this report is, but I suspect it will be flawed for either of two reasons.<BR/><BR/>Either the figure of 8% could simply be the percentage of <I>all</I> pre-existing laws in Britain which originate from the EU - as opposed to the percentage of laws which are passed on an annual basis...<BR/><BR/>... Or alternatively it could represent the percentage of laws enacted on an annual basis which are direct EU Regulations - without accounting for EU Directives which are written by British civil servants and subsequently implemented as statutory instruments. They also constitute the majority of European Laws.SteveThePhysicistnoreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7631241.post-12563579986150980422007-11-16T08:43:00.000Z2007-11-16T08:43:00.000ZGiven that the Labour government refuses, despite regular request thriough Parliamentary PQ requests to support a definative study on this, the only option is to perovide a guestimate. However,a s you are no doubt aware, Roman Herzog the former German President a few months ago stated clearly that 80% of German law originates in the Commission. Therefore that is the figure that we will appropriate from now on. <BR/>As a matter of interest, what is your best guess?Elaib Harveyhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/08583658895528269901noreply@blogger.com